Wouldn't that be like for a bunt or a flyball, if one of the previous batters scores a run on the play? The batter is still batting in a run, it's just that he himself doesn't advance to a base.

(Or am I misunderstanding the question?)

If he has a sacrifice hit out that scores a run (like caught in right field and the runner on third tags and makes it home, for example), it's not a hit, but he gets credited with the RBI.

(This isn't fantasy-specific, but how baseball is scored.)

or, yeah, what occhi said.

He could also score a run himself without registering a hit if he got on base because of a fielder's choice or an error. For example, a player hits an easy fly ball to left field but the left fielder bobbles it and the player gets to first safely. The batter isn't credited with a hit, but they got to base nonetheless and could eventually still score a run.

Like how I switched to the plural pronoun at the end? That's how I roll.

I think mullacc has it for the runs. Occhiblu/'pode have it for the RBIs.

Thanks!

Who gets the RBI on a balk that sends a player home?

I think no RBI is awarded, just as if someone made it home on an error.

(or a fielder's choice, or a double play that scores a run)

I'm not sure that a balk doesn't result in an RBI. Here's the rule:

10.04 Runs Batted In
A run batted in is a statistic credited to a batter whose action at bat causes one or more runs to score, as set forth in this Rule 10.04.
(a) The official scorer shall credit the batter with a run batted in for every run that scores
(1) unaided by an error and as part of a play begun by the batter's safe hit (including the batter’s home run), sacrifice bunt, sacrifice fly, infield out or fielder's choice, unless Rule 10.04(b) applies;
(2) by reason of the batter becoming a runner with the bases full (because of a base on balls, an award of first base for being touched by a pitched ball or for interference or obstruction); or
(3) when, before two are out, an error is made on a play on which a runner from third base ordinarily would score.
(b) The official scorer shall not credit a run batted in
(1) when the batter grounds into a force double play or a reverse-force double play; or
(2) when a fielder is charged with an error because the fielder muffs a throw at first base that would have completed a force double play.
(c) The official scorer's judgment must determine whether a run batted in shall be credited for a run that scores when a fielder holds the ball or throws to a wrong base. Ordinarily, if the runner keeps going, the official scorer should credit a run batted in; if the runner stops and takes off again when the runner notices the misplay, the official scorer should credit the run as scored on a fielder's choice.

hrrmmm, this would indicate there is no RBI awarded (although I've no idea how "expert" the expert is

The important part of Rule 10.04, regarding how to score a balk that results in a run, is that an RBI is "credited to a batter whose action at bat causes one or more runs to score."

No batter action in a balk, so no RBI for the batter. In the link gaspode posted, the expert points out that if a base runner steals home plate (usually on a wild pitch or pass ball), that does not count as an RBI either.

Hrm. I'm not sure I like this rule. I accept it based on the preponderance of evidence though.

I feel that if a batter is credited an RBI if he's beaned while the bases are loaded, then it would be consistent to also credit him after a balk. I guess it depends on the specific balk. For example, if the pitcher balks because he's getting cute with the base-runners, then clearly the batter shouldn't be awarded an RBI. But if the pitcher is focusing on the batter and manages to balk, I would consider that the equivalent of being hit by the pitch.